A) Trophozoite – glycolysis via hexose monophosphate shunt B) Schizont – proteolysis of hemoglobin C) Hypnozoite – dormant stage in hepatocytes with slow metabolic rate D) Gametocyte – anaerobic respiration E) Merozoite – pentose phosphate pathway only Answer: C – P. vivax and P. ovale form hypnozoites in the liver, causing relapse months after primary infection. They are metabolically dormant but survive. Primaquine targets them. The 48-hour periodicity is tertian malaria. 7. Virology – Unusual Latency Which DNA virus is correctly paired with its primary site of latency AND a unique reactivation trigger that does NOT involve immunosuppression?
A) Superoxide dismutase B) Catalase C) Pyruvate-ferredoxin oxidoreductase D) Cytochrome c oxidase E) Beta-lactamase Answer: C – The organism is Bacteroides fragilis group. Metronidazole is a prodrug reduced by ferredoxin (or pyruvate-ferredoxin oxidoreductase) in anaerobic bacteria; the reduced form damages DNA. Resistance can occur via nim genes that reduce metronidazole to inactive metabolites. Option A (SOD) is present in aerotolerant anaerobes but not metronidazole target. 5. Mycology – Antifungal Mechanism A patient with prolonged neutropenia develops a pulmonary cavity. A serum galactomannan antigen is positive. The isolate grows a greenish-brown colony with a red reverse on Sabouraud dextrose agar. Which drug’s mechanism is most specifically suited for this organism’s unique cell wall component? jawetz microbiology mcq
A) Lipid A-mediated cytokine storm B) IgA protease secretion C) Polysaccharide capsule that inhibits complement deposition D) Exotoxin A-mediated ADP-ribosylation of EF-2 E) M protein-mediated antiphagocytosis Answer: C – The organism is Haemophilus influenzae type b (requires X and V factors). Its polyribosylribitol phosphate (PRP) capsule is the major virulence factor for invasive disease (meningitis, epiglottitis). IgA protease (B) facilitates mucosal colonization but not invasion. Exotoxin A is from Pseudomonas . M protein is from Strep. pyogenes . 2. Antiviral Pharmacology A patient with HIV (CD4 count 180) on tenofovir, emtricitabine, and dolutegravir develops progressive outer retinal necrosis. PCR of vitreous fluid is positive for varicella-zoster virus (VZV). Which drug added to current ART would be most appropriate, and what is its mechanism? A) Trophozoite – glycolysis via hexose monophosphate shunt
A) PYR positive – fibrinogen binding protein B) Optochin resistant – pneumolysin C) Bacitracin sensitive – M protein D) Hippurate hydrolysis – CAMP factor E) Lancefield group D antigen – cytolysin Answer: A – The organism is Enterococcus faecalis (bile-esculin +, 6.5% NaCl +). Among enterococci, E. faecalis is PYR positive (distinguishes from E. faecium sometimes). Key virulence for endocarditis includes aggregation substance and gelatinase. Option A’s “fibrinogen binding protein” refers to microbial surface component recognizing adhesive matrix molecules (MSCRAMMs). CAMP factor is Strep. agalactiae . Hippurate hydrolysis is S. agalactiae . 4. Anaerobes – Deep Concept A diabetic foot ulcer culture grows foul-smelling, gram-negative bacilli, resistant to kanamycin and vancomycin, but sensitive to metronidazole. Which enzyme system is directly inhibited by metronidazole in this organism? They are metabolically dormant but survive
A) Mycolic acid chain length – Mycobacterium marinum B) Lipoarabinomannan (LAM) structure – Mycobacterium kansasii C) Phthiocerol dimycocerosate (PDIM) – Mycobacterium leprae D) Sulfolipids – Mycobacterium tuberculosis E) Phenolic glycolipids – Mycobacterium ulcerans Answer: A – M. marinum causes fish tank granuloma, grows optimally at 30-32°C, not at 37°C. Mycolic acid chain composition affects membrane fluidity. M. leprae (C) does not grow on artificial media. PDIM is important for M. tuberculosis virulence but not temperature restriction. 10. Mixed Infection – Synergy A human bite wound becomes necrotizing within 24 hours. Gram stain shows mixed pleomorphic gram-negative rods and tiny gram-positive cocci in chains. The infection is more severe than either isolate alone. Which pair of organisms and their synergistic virulence mechanism is correct?
A) HSV-1 – trigeminal ganglia – sunlight/UV B) VZV – dorsal root ganglia – emotional stress C) EBV – B lymphocytes – plasmapheresis D) CMV – salivary gland endothelial cells – trauma E) HHV-6 – microglia – rituximab therapy Answer: A – HSV-1 reactivation is classically triggered by UV light, fever, stress. VZV reactivation (shingles) often has no clear trigger but can be stress/age-related; sunlight is not classic. EBV latency in B cells; reactivation more with immunosuppression. CMV latency in monocytes; plasmapheresis not a trigger. HHV-6 in microglia; reactivation post-transplant, not rituximab specifically. 8. Spirochetes – Diagnostic Pitfall A patient with a painless genital ulcer and inguinal lymphadenopathy has a darkfield microscopy positive for spirochetes. However, the RPR is negative. Which of the following best explains this seronegative primary syphilis?
A) Ganciclovir – inhibits DNA polymerase after phosphorylation by viral kinase B) Acyclovir – requires viral thymidine kinase for activation C) Foscarnet – directly inhibits viral DNA polymerase without prior phosphorylation D) Cidofovir – incorporates into DNA after diphosphate conversion E) Brivudine – inhibits viral thymidine kinase Answer: C – VZV retinitis in advanced HIV can be acyclovir-resistant due to thymidine kinase mutations. Foscarnet does not require viral TK; it directly blocks DNA polymerase. Acyclovir (B) would fail if TK-deficient. Ganciclovir (A) requires viral kinase (UL97 for CMV; VZV TK less efficient). Brivudine (E) also requires TK. 3. Gram-Positive Cocci – Subtle Differentiation A blood culture from a patient with subacute bacterial endocarditis grows catalase-negative, gram-positive cocci in chains. The organism is bile-esculin positive, grows in 6.5% NaCl, and produces a yellow pigment on blood agar. Which additional test confirms the species, and what is the key virulence factor?
